Is they a second-person pronoun?
What are preferred pronouns?
What is a personal pronoun?
In comments...
John Lawler said...
English lacks a standard anything.
English dialects cover all bases, just not for everybody playing the same game. Or, in this case, a recent rhyme answers the question: Roses are red/Violets are blue/Singular they's older/Than singular you.
and also...
It wasn't a word; it was a paradigm. Just as I, me, my, mine was and still is the first person singular pronoun paradigm, the second person singular (and familiar) paradigm in Early Modern English was thou, thee, thy, thine, and the second person plural (and polite) paradigm was ye, you, your, yours.
Cascabel said...
I think what they mean is there is no plural form that differentiates the singular "you" from the plural "you"...such as "you guys" or "all y'all".
Bold Ben said
There are three forms of the second person singular familiar pronoun which correspond to the three forms of the first person singular and the third person masculine and feminine pronouns (the third person neuter only has two forms).The nominative (corresponds to 'I', 'he', she and it) is 'thou', the accusative (corresponds to 'me', 'him'. 'her' and 'it') is 'thee' and the possessive (corresponds to 'mine', 'his', 'hers' and 'its') is 'thine' The verbs parts used with the nominate case are also specific, for example 'thou hast', 'thou sittest', 'thou art'.
how about "you folks", in lieu of "you guys"?
Not sure if there's an answer, but it sure seems counterintuitive that we have to force "ya'll, you guys, you (depending on context)" as opposed to having a defined plural form.
edit: Extremely interesting! Thanks for the responses.
You'll hear this in New Zealand. "Y'all" from the American midwest springs to mind too. What are some other examples?
English marks plurality in first and third person pronouns (I vs. we, he/she/it vs. they), but not in the second person (you). (The singular thou did exist in English in the past, but is now considered obsolete.)
According to WALS chapter 35 (paragraph 5.1), about 20% of languages distinguish plurality in either first person or second person but not both. So the partial lack of plurality marking in English is present in a minority of languages, but it isn't incredibly rare.
Among Indo-European languages, I think the lack of plurality marking on pronouns is less common, but I don't have any statistics.
Although largely archaic, in some locations (some parts of Northern England/Cornwall/Ireland, among others) the word "ye" is still used as second-person-plural. It can also be found in some older works, such as the King James Bible:
"Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you." John 15:16
(Note that here both "ye" and "you" are both being used as plural second person, with "ye" as the Subjective form - vs "thou" as the singular second person Subjective - and "you" as the Objective form - vs "thee" as the singular second person Objective)
This should not be confused with "ye" as a typographical approximation of "þe" (i.e. "the") as in "þe olde shoppe"/"ye olde shoppe", which arose from the similarities between the cursive gothic letter "y" and "þ" (pronounced "thorn") which was not widely available in movable type.
(Alternatively - for those of you living in the Southern States of America, there's always "y'all". *shudder*)
Why do second person plural pronouns (ex. you, vos, vous) have a tendency to develop into formal pronouns? From what I understand, "you" came from a second person plural, began to be used as a formal, and eventually developed into its modern use as a general second person pronoun, for both singular and plural, as well as it technically essentially having no value in formality due to the lack of any other second person pronoun in modern English. Due to the use of "you" as the dominant English second person pronoun, "thou" fell out of use. Additionally, "vous" appears to be almost exclusively a plural in French, but has a formal value in some occurrences. Finally, "vos" was originally a second person plural, in both Latin and Spanish, however it began to be used as a formal pronoun in Latin as well as interchangeably with "tu". Eventually, when Spanish came around, "vos" became a second person plural, but then RE-evolved into a formal, then consequently went back into common use in parts of Latin America! Why does this pattern happen?